Does the condition | (F(X)F''(X)) / (F'(X))^2 | < 1 need to hold in order for convergence to take place?
Knock knock knock.....
Anybody home?
I got bizarre result when the criteria for convergence was over 1.
Originally posted by deepak.c:
Does the condition | (F(X)F''(X)) / (F'(X))^2 | < 1 need to hold in order for convergence to take place?
Sigh ... I forgotten it ...becos my Poly Maths module is too intensive and tough :)
perhaps you can wiki it for the answer
Sorry ..endeavouring to help you ..but somehow i forgot liao